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CompTIA SY0-701 Sample Questions
Question # 1
Which of the following incident response activities ensures evidence is properly handied?
A. E-discovery B. Chain of custody C. Legal hold D. Preservation
Answer: B
Explanation: Chain of custody is the process of documenting and preserving the integrity
of evidence collected during an incident response. It involves recording the details of each
person who handled the evidence, the time and date of each transfer, and the location
where the evidence was stored. Chain of custody ensures that the evidence is admissible
in legal proceedings and can be traced back to its source. E-discovery, legal hold, and
preservation are related concepts, but they do not ensure evidence is properly
Question # 2
Which of the following would help ensure a security analyst is able to accurately measurethe overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed?
A. A full inventory of all hardware and software B. Documentation of system classifications C. A list of system owners and their departments D. Third-party risk assessment documentation
Answer: A
Explanation: A full inventory of all hardware and software is essential for measuring the
overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed, because it allows the
security analyst to identify which systems are affected by the vulnerability and prioritize the
remediation efforts. Without a full inventory, the security analyst may miss some vulnerable systems or waste time and resources on irrelevant ones. Documentation of system
classifications, a list of system owners and their departments, and third-party risk
assessment documentation are all useful for risk management, but they are not sufficient to
measure the impact of a new vulnerability. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide:
A company must ensure sensitive data at rest is rendered unreadable. Which of thefollowing will the company most likely use?
A. Hashing B. Tokenization C. Encryption D. Segmentation
Answer: C
Explanation: Encryption is a method of transforming data in a way that makes it
unreadable without a secret key necessary to decrypt the data back into plaintext.
Encryption is one of the most common and effective ways to protect data at rest, as it
prevents unauthorized access, modification, or theft of the data. Encryption can be applied
to different types of data at rest, such as block storage, object storage, databases,
archives, and so on. Hashing, tokenization, and segmentation are not methods of rendering
data at rest unreadable, but rather of protecting data in other ways. Hashing is a one-way
function that generates a fixed-length output, called a hash or digest, from an input, such
that the input cannot be recovered from the output. Hashing is used to verify the integrity
and authenticity of data, but not to encrypt it. Tokenization is a process that replaces
sensitive data with non-sensitive substitutes, called tokens, that have no meaning or value
on their own. Tokenization is used to reduce the exposure and compliance scope of
sensitive data, but not to encrypt it. Segmentation is a technique that divides a network or a
system into smaller, isolated units, called segments, that have different levels of access
and security. Segmentation is used to limit the attack surface and contain the impact of a
breach, but not to encrypt data at rest. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide:
Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, pages 77-781; Protecting data at rest - Security Pillar3
Question # 4
Visitors to a secured facility are required to check in with a photo ID and enter the facilitythrough an access control vestibule Which of the following but describes this form ofsecurity control?
A. Physical B. Managerial C. Technical D. Operational
Answer: A
Explanation: A physical security control is a device or mechanism that prevents
unauthorized access to a physical location or asset. An access control vestibule, also
known as a mantrap, is a physical security control that consists of a small space with two
sets of interlocking doors, such that the first set of doors must close before the second set
opens. This prevents unauthorized individuals from following authorized individuals into the
facility, a practice known as piggybacking or tailgating. A photo ID check is another form of
physical security control that verifies the identity of visitors. Managerial, technical, and
operational security controls are not directly related to physical access, but rather to
policies, procedures, systems, and processes that support security
objectives. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition,
page 341; Mantrap (access control) - Wikipedia2
Question # 5
A security analyst receives alerts about an internal system sending a large amount ofunusual DNS queries to systems on the internet over short periods of time during nonbusinesshours. Which of the following is most likely occurring?
A. A worm is propagating across the network. B. Data is being exfiltrated. C. A logic bomb is deleting data. D. Ransomware is encrypting files.
Answer: B
Explanation: Data exfiltration is a technique that attackers use to steal sensitive data from
a target system or network by transmitting it through DNS queries and responses. This
method is often used in advanced persistent threat (APT) attacks, in which attackers seek
to persistently evade detection in the target environment. A large amount of unusual DNS
queries to systems on the internet over short periods of time during non-business hours is
a strong indicator of data exfiltration. A worm, a logic bomb, and ransomware would not
use DNS queries to communicate with their command and control servers or perform their
malicious actions. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th
Edition, page 487; Introduction to DNS Data Exfiltration; Identifying a DNS Exfiltration
Attack That Wasn’t Real — This Time
Question # 6
A company is planning a disaster recovery site and needs to ensure that a single naturaldisaster would not result in the complete loss of regulated backup data. Which of thefollowing should the company consider?
A. Geographic dispersion B. Platform diversity C. Hot site D. Load balancing
Answer: A
Explanation: Geographic dispersion is the practice of having backup data stored in
different locations that are far enough apart to minimize the risk of a single natural disaster
affecting both sites. This ensures that the company can recover its regulated data in case
of a disaster at the primary site. Platform diversity, hot site, and load balancing are not
directly related to the protection of backup data from natural
A company is working with a vendor to perform a penetration test Which of the followingincludes an estimate about the number of hours required to complete the engagement?
A. SOW B. BPA C. SLA D. NDA
Answer: A
Explanation: A statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, objectives,
deliverables, timeline, and costs of a project or service. It typically includes an estimate of
the number of hours required to complete the engagement, as well as the roles and
responsibilities of the parties involved. A SOW is often used for penetration testing projects
to ensure that both the client and the vendor have a clear and mutual understanding of
what is expected and how the work will be performed. A business partnership agreement
(BPA), a service level agreement (SLA), and a non-disclosure agreement (NDA) are
different types of contracts that may be related to a penetration testing project, but they do
not include an estimate of the number of hours required to complete the
engagement. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition,
page 492; What to Look For in a Penetration Testing Statement of Work?
Question # 8
Which of the following teams combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques toprotect an organization's critical systems?
A. Red B. Blue C. Purple D. Yellow
Answer: C
Explanation: Purple is the team that combines both offensive and defensive testing
techniques to protect an organization’s critical systems. Purple is not a separate team, but
rather a collaboration between the red team and the blue team. The red team is the
offensive team that simulates attacks and exploits vulnerabilities in the organization’s
systems. The blue team is the defensive team that monitors and protects the organization’s
systems from real and simulated threats. The purple team exists to ensure and maximize
the effectiveness of the red and blue teams by integrating the defensive tactics and controls from the blue team with the threats and vulnerabilities found by the red team into a
single narrative that improves the overall security posture of the organization. Red, blue,
and yellow are other types of teams involved in security testing, but they do not combine
both offensive and defensive techniques. The yellow team is the team that builds software
solutions, scripts, and other programs that the blue team uses in the security
Which of the following describes the maximum allowance of accepted risk?
A. Risk indicator B. Risk level C. Risk score D. Risk threshold
Answer: D
Explanation: Risk threshold is the maximum amount of risk that an organization is willing
to accept for a given activity or decision. It is also known as risk appetite or risk tolerance. Risk threshold helps an organization to prioritize and allocate resources for risk
management. Risk indicator, risk level, and risk score are different ways of measuring or
expressing the likelihood and impact of a risk, but they do not describe the maximum
allowance of accepted risk. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701,
9th Edition, page 34; Accepting Risk: Definition, How It Works, and Alternatives
Question # 10
The local administrator account for a company's VPN appliance was unexpectedly used tolog in to the remote management interface. Which of the following would have most likelyprevented this from happening'?
A. Using least privilege B. Changing the default password C. Assigning individual user IDs D. Reviewing logs more frequently
Answer: B
Explanation:
Changing the default password for the local administrator account on a VPN appliance is a
basic security measure that would have most likely prevented the unexpected login to the
remote management interface. Default passwords are often easy to guess or publicly
available, and attackers can use them to gain unauthorized access to devices and
systems. Changing the default password to a strong and unique one reduces the risk of
brute-force attacks and credential theft. Using least privilege, assigning individual user IDs,
and reviewing logs more frequently are also good security practices, but they are not as
effective as changing the default password in preventing the unexpected
